Wondering if someone could help me in finding the antiderivative of (sin(z*arctan(x)))/((1 + x^2)^(z/2)*(e^(pi * x) + 1))
Where z stands for some constant (to be honest it's a complex constant, but I could care less about complex right now)

It's the integral listed here: Riemann zeta function - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

So far I have had the idea of using u substitution to do arctan(x) = u so you have sin(zu) up top and sin = x/sqrt(1+x^2)
I forget my trig identities because I feel like there is something you can do from some constant in front of x radians to express all solutions since it is circular...
Also in the bottom since x = tan you get 1 + tan^2 which I believe is an trig identity but I forget for what.

Just wondering if someone could try and help out or maybe give me some ideas. I am thinking of maybe creating a "new" method of integration where like intregration by parts is reverse product rule I could use a reverse quotient rule and then make the bottom function into a product. I haven't been formally taught integral calculus so I'm sure I'm probably doing something wrong or not knowing something to make this problem easier. Thanks.

Also I think it may not be able to be expressed in elementary terms, which I don't really care about. I want to be able to express it even if it is in inverse functions.